.
Why does this difference, which is so striking to the eye, exist? Both countries, I assume, had feudal strip systems. In both countries the feudal system began to break up after the Black Death - at least it certainly did in England and the up and coming Yeomen farmers made a grab for strips that were no long tilled by a depleted population. My guess is that these farmers expanded their fields until they hit the more irregular boundaries described by the hedgrows, woods, and roads. So why does Italy retain a strip system? What is it about the Italian history and setting that is so different?
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